Original Sin and Equality among the Sexes?

I continue to read The Complete Idiot’s Guide to Understanding Islam by Yahiya Emerick, and have not finished it. Some of the ideas in today’s post I have discussed with a resource-friend, others I have not but plan to, in order to clarify my understanding of the issue.

There are things in Islam that make a lot of sense to me, and in some ways appeal more than the concepts in Christianity (the religion of my upbringing). For example, Islam does not have a belief in original sin, but instead believes that “we are all born pure” (Emerick, 43). I like this idea better, and, in fact, it gels with my questioning of the concept of original sin in Christianity. How can someone who has never had the chance to do wrong or offend or have the wrong intentions be sinful at birth? Additionally, the idea that the original sin was passed down from Adam and Eve is incongruous with my personal notion of individual responsibility and accountability. I do not believe that sins are passed on to the child from the parents, so how can sin be passed from someone generations ago to someone born today?

And while I have, at times, questioned the idea of Jesus as the literal “Son of God” I do believe that he was killed on a cross, which (as I have read) the Qur’an denies (Emerick, 43). I understand that Muslims consider Jesus to be a very important prophet, along with Abraham and others, but they do not consider Jesus any more unique than the others. I can live with that notion, but do believe that the martyrdom did occur, and believe that he could have risen from the dead (since all things are possible with God’s assistance).

Additionally, I like the concept of no clergy. I believe that I have the ability and the right to talk directly to God (again, back to my recent Reformation unit, way to go Martin Luther!) and do not need an intermediary or middleman to communicate on my behalf, or to go to seek forgiveness for my sins. As well, I have always disagreed with the Catholic Church on the issue of women as priests. I believe that gender does not make anyone more or less worthy or capable of serving God. The sexism that I believe this engenders within the entire Church hierarchy bothers me. But then, I see some of that in Islam. I have read, in several different sources, that men and women are equal before Allah, which is a concept I can support wholeheartedly. However, there are specifics that I feel contradict that notion. In order to obtain a divorce, men only need to proclaim that intention three times. Women can instigate a divorce, but need to file papers with an Islamic court or with a recognized scholar asking to divorce her husband. “Although she doesn’t need the permission of her husband, she does need a compelling reason” (Emerick, 262). How is this equal? If men and women were equal before Allah, then the requirements would be the same for both of them – either just making the statement to start the process or filing papers. Are women more prone to flights of fancy, or more likely to get irritated at their husband “during that time of the month” and divorce him for no good reason? It sounds like men are potentially more likely to make that statement in a fit of pique, since they need not have a compelling reason. There was an interesting story in the news earlier this year (http://abcnews.go.com/International/wireStory?id=1776288) about a man who divorced his wife in his sleep. If that is a viable (maybe only in the village that decided that sleep talking was enforceable intent) divorce, with no or so little concrete intention from the husband, how, if women have to have a “compelling reason” is this equal?

While I live in the United States, which does not allow polygyny, I take exception to the notion that men can have multiple wives, but women cannot have multiple husbands. Ideally, I feel that marriage is a commitment between two people (one man and one woman, two men, or two women) and only two people, but feel the issue should be balanced – what is good for the goose is good for the gander? I understand that the role of women and men in Islam is different and defined. Men are responsible for taking care of women (wife, mother, sister, etc.), and women need not return the favor by contributing monetarily to the maintenance of the household. However, I take umbrage with the idea that if men have a propensity for sleeping around, it is better to have multiple wives rather than one wife and a mistress or two. As someone going through a divorce because of infidelity on my husband’s part, I have a personal stake (and potentially biased opinion) regarding this aspect of this issue, and have no interest in staying in a marriage with someone who cannot be faithful to the marriage vows we exchanged. I also understand that polygyny is not that commonly practiced anymore, however it is the idea that bothers me, I guess. Another reason given for polygyny being acceptable is if a woman is barren and unable to have children; therefore it is better for her husband to marry a second women rather than subjecting the first wife to being “divorced and cast aside in favor of a fertile wife” (Emerick, 261). What if a man is impotent and unable to sire children? Is this an acceptable reason for a wife to initiate divorce proceedings with her husband? What about her ability to marry a second man in order to have children, while not abandoning or casting aside her first husband?

As I stated at the top of this post, I am continuing to learn about the faith and practices of Islam, through reading and talking to people who know much more than I. If someone wishes to clarify, or disagree with, something I have said here please feel free to comment.